Free practice quiz
BCEMP Prep Course (BCEMP): free quiz
10 questions from the program. See your score right away, then unlock the explanation of every answer.
- Question 1 of 10
An ED pharmacist reviews apixaban 5 mg PO twice daily for atrial fibrillation in a fictional 82-year-old patient weighing 54 kg with SCr 1.6 mg/dL who also takes amiodarone 200 mg PO daily. The pharmacist recommends apixaban 2.5 mg PO twice daily and documents monitoring for bleeding before ED discharge. Which BCEMP blueprint domain-task classification best fits this stem?
Review BCEMP domain-task classification
C is correct. This is patient care: reconciling apixaban, applying the age/weight/SCr dose-reduction rule, checking the amiodarone P-gp/CYP3A4 interaction, and planning bleeding monitoring. A is tempting because protocols affect DOAC use, but no formulary or policy decision is being made. B is tempting because guideline knowledge is used, but the action is bedside medication optimization, not teaching or research. D is close within anticoagulation, but no major bleeding or reversal order is present.
NOTICE: age, weight, SCr, amiodarone. SAY: recommend apixaban 2.5 mg PO BID. MONITOR: bleeding/CBC as clinically indicated. HOLD/CLARIFY/ESCALATE: active bleeding or inappropriate duplicate anticoagulation. - Question 2 of 10Linezolid 600 mg IV every 12 hours is proposed for pneumonia. The home list includes phenelzine 15 mg PO three times daily, but the patient is altered. As the ED pharmacist, which medication-history action is best?
Medication History Sources
B is correct: linezolid has MAOI activity and can interact dangerously with phenelzine; current use and last dose matter. A ignores route-independent interaction. D is a dose-adjustment trap. A misses active medication history.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE MAOI plus linezolid; SAY verify last phenelzine; MONITOR BP, temperature, neuromuscular findings; HOLD/CLARIFY/ESCALATE before dispensing if MAOI exposure is current. - Question 3 of 10
A 110-kg adult with acetaminophen toxicity has IV acetylcysteine ordered as 16,500 mg over 1 hour, then 5500 mg over 4 hours, then 11,000 mg over 16 hours. The patient takes warfarin 5 mg PO daily. As the ED pharmacist checking the antidote dose, what should you recommend?
Acetylcysteine weight cap
B is correct: IV acetylcysteine labeling provides capped doses for patients at or above 100 kg. C is the dose-adjustment trap and increases fluid/drug exposure. A is an interaction trap; warfarin complicates INR assessment but does not justify delaying antidote. A misses that all three bags are weight based.
NOTICE weight over 100 kg; SAY capped regimen; MONITOR AST/ALT, INR, acetaminophen; CONSULT poison center if complex. - Question 4 of 10A 78-year-old ED patient with renal colic has ketorolac 15 mg IV every 6 hours ordered. CrCl is 25 mL/min, and the medication history shows apixaban 5 mg PO twice daily. As pharmacist, what is the safest recommendation?
Review Renal Hepatic Dose Adjustment
D is correct: ketorolac is contraindicated or should be avoided in advanced renal impairment and has additive bleeding risk with apixaban. C is tempting because 15 mg is the geriatric dose, but CrCl 25 plus anticoagulation eliminates it. A is tempting for severe pain, but higher exposure worsens renal and bleeding risk. B is tempting as an oral alternative, but ibuprofen shares NSAID renal and anticoagulant bleeding hazards.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE CrCl 25 and apixaban; SAY avoid NSAID; MONITOR pain, bleeding, renal function; HOLD/CLARIFY before any NSAID if CrCl below 30 or active anticoagulation. - Question 5 of 10
During PEA arrest, epinephrine 1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes is running. The team asks whether to give sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq IV routinely because the arrest has lasted 12 minutes and pH is unknown. As pharmacist, what is best?
Routine bicarbonate avoidance
D is correct: bicarbonate is not routine in arrest; it is reserved for selected toxicologic/metabolic indications. C is tempting from acidosis concerns but may cause hypernatremia, alkalosis, and CO2 generation. A removes indicated epinephrine. B adds calcium without indication and may cause precipitation if mixed.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE no indication; SAY reserve bicarbonate; MONITOR potassium/pH/QRS; CLARIFY TCA, hyperkalemia, renal failure. - Question 6 of 10
After ROSC, a patient has K 6.8 mEq/L, wide QRS, and acute kidney injury. Calcium gluconate 3 g IV once is being administered. Which additional medication order should the ED pharmacist recommend to shift potassium intracellularly?
Core Content
B rapidly shifts potassium but requires hypoglycemia monitoring. A may help with severe acidosis, but bicarbonate alone is unreliable. B is adjunctive; low-dose albuterol is insufficient and may worsen tachyarrhythmias. A removes potassium slowly and does not stabilize ECG changes.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE wide QRS hyperkalemia; SAY give insulin/dextrose after calcium; MONITOR glucose every 30–60 minutes; ESCALATE for persistent ECG changes. - Question 7 of 10A 64-year-old with septic shock has MAP 56, heart rate 132, and lactate 4.8. Current orders include epinephrine 0.1 mcg/kg/min IV as first-line and piperacillin-tazobactam 4.5 g IV every 6 hours. As pharmacist, what should you recommend?
Epinephrine versus Norepinephrine in Sepsis
D is correct: norepinephrine is preferred first-line septic shock therapy. A is tempting because epinephrine is potent, but beta-2 stimulation can increase lactate and complicate interpretation. C is tempting for BP support, but dopamine worsens tachyarrhythmia risk. B is tempting when lactate is high, but dobutamine alone may reduce SVR and worsen hypotension unless low-output physiology is present.
NOTICE epinephrine first-line with tachycardia/lactate; SAY use norepinephrine; MONITOR MAP, lactate trend, rhythm; CLARIFY low-output findings before inotrope. - Question 8 of 10A 24-year-old with anaphylaxis received epinephrine 0.3 mg IM twice, diphenhydramine 50 mg IV once, and methylprednisolone 125 mg IV once. BP is 82/44 mm Hg. An induction order is propofol 2 mg/kg IV once. As pharmacist, what should you recommend?
Anaphylaxis induction
A is correct: ketamine supports catecholamine tone and bronchodilation; use lower shock dosing. D is tempting for rapid onset; propofol hypotension is the eliminating fact. C is tempting for anxiolysis; diphenhydramine adds sedation, not protection. B is tempting for stability; 0.6 mg/kg etomidate is excessive.
Notice epinephrine-treated shock; say ketamine lower dose; monitor BP/bronchospasm; escalate refractory hypotension. - Question 9 of 10A 58-year-old with decompensated cirrhosis is intubated for variceal hemorrhage. Current order: midazolam 5 mg IV every 10 minutes as needed, then 0.1 mg/kg/hr. BP is 118/70 mm Hg. As the ED pharmacist, what is the best sedation recommendation?
Hepatic impairment and sedative choice
C is correct: propofol is rapidly titratable and avoids prolonged benzodiazepine accumulation, though BP must be watched. B is tempting for amnesia, but midazolam clearance falls in cirrhosis. A is worse because diazepam active metabolites prolong sedation. D is tempting for cooperative sedation, but dexmedetomidine clearance is reduced in hepatic impairment and loading can destabilize BP/HR.
Pharmacist Action: NOTICE cirrhosis; SAY avoid high-dose benzodiazepine infusion; MONITOR RASS/MAP every 5–15 minutes; CLARIFY if deep sedation persists. - Question 10 of 10
A 54-year-old, 98-kg patient with STEMI cannot reach PCI within guideline time. Aspirin 324 mg PO once, clopidogrel 300 mg PO once, and UFH 60 units/kg IV once are ordered. What tenecteplase dose should the pharmacist prepare?
Weight-based fibrinolysis
B is correct: tenecteplase is weight-tiered; at least 90 kg receives 50 mg IV once. C, D, and A are tempting because they are valid lower weight tiers, but the single eliminating fact is actual weight 98 kg. Renal function does not adjust tenecteplase, while antithrombotic co-therapy increases bleeding risk and must be verified.
NOTICE actual weight; SAY prepare 50 mg IV once; MONITOR reperfusion signs and bleeding frequently; HOLD/CLARIFY if stroke, active bleeding, or duplicate lytic order appears.
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